AbandonedSoldier
New member
Hey. I'm a young guy from Europe who came back to Islam.
The only doubt remaining is premarital sex. It is considered a sin in the Quran, but Amr said there is the harem system.
I looked online about it, the right hand possession, but that requires the concubines/harem to be slaves.
Since slavery nowadays doesn't exist, I don't particularly understand how Amr said it can be done now.
In 1400 i understand why it was necessary to keep men from having premarital sex, but nowadays I just don't understand how it can be considered a sin, or a bad thing, since I don't hurt anybody doing it.
I tried asking on reddit, they bashed me saying to come back to Islam when I was less sexist.
I don't want to marry, I'm not willing to give my future and energy to only one woman for just sex.
Is it really said in the quran that in every case premarital sex is forbidden? Because I read it's unlawful. But if I live in a place where there is no sharia it can't be considered unlawful no?
The only doubt remaining is premarital sex. It is considered a sin in the Quran, but Amr said there is the harem system.
I looked online about it, the right hand possession, but that requires the concubines/harem to be slaves.
Since slavery nowadays doesn't exist, I don't particularly understand how Amr said it can be done now.
In 1400 i understand why it was necessary to keep men from having premarital sex, but nowadays I just don't understand how it can be considered a sin, or a bad thing, since I don't hurt anybody doing it.
I tried asking on reddit, they bashed me saying to come back to Islam when I was less sexist.
I don't want to marry, I'm not willing to give my future and energy to only one woman for just sex.
Is it really said in the quran that in every case premarital sex is forbidden? Because I read it's unlawful. But if I live in a place where there is no sharia it can't be considered unlawful no?